
不妨把产品原价看作$1$,设$p\% =x$,$q\% =y$.
方案$1$提价为$\left ( {1+p\% } \right )\left ( {1+q\% } \right )=\left ( {1+x} \right )\left ( {1+y} \right )$;
方案$2$提价为$\left ( {1+q\% } \right )\left ( {1+p\% } \right )=\left ( {1+y} \right )\left ( {1+x} \right )$;
方案$3$提价为$\left ( {1+\dfrac {p+q} {2}\% } \right )\left ( {1+\dfrac {p+q} {2}\% } \right )=\left ( {1+\dfrac {x+y} {2}} \right )\left ( {1+\dfrac {x+y} {2}} \right )$.
显然$\left ( {1+p\% } \right )\left ( {1+q\% } \right )=\left ( {1+q\% } \right )\left ( {1+p\% } \right )$.
$\because \left ( {1+\dfrac {x+y} {2}} \right )\left ( {1+\dfrac {x+y} {2}} \right )-\left ( {1+x} \right )\left ( {1+y} \right )$
$=1+\dfrac {x+y} {2}+\dfrac {x+y} {2}+\left ( {\dfrac {x+y} {2}} \right )^{2}-1-x-y-xy$
$=1+x+y+\left ( {\dfrac {x+y} {2}} \right )^{2}-1-x-y-xy$
$=\left ( {\dfrac {x+y} {2}} \right )^{2}-xy$
$=\left ( {\dfrac {x-y} {2}} \right )^{2}\gt 0$,
$\therefore $方案$3$提价最多.
